Something I've Been Thinking About

Okay so here's the situation:

Suppose it can be determined whether or not someone has permanent amnesia with absolutely no possible way for the person's past memories to return. With that being said the person who has amnesia is no longer the person all those around them remember. The person is completely different and has a different persona, mannerisms and etc. Now with those details out of the way, let's say someone intentionally caused said permanent amnesia. By causing someone to be in that state of permanent amnesia could that person be charged with "murder"?

Now by most definitions murder is defined as taking away a person's life against their will or killing a human being. With the situation above, causing someone to be in a permanent state of amnesia would fall into the category of murder for me. Now for those reading this you may jump out and say that the person suffering amnesia is still alive, but murder is not defined by bodily destruction, mutilation and etc. It is the act of taking away a life or killing a human being, keyword being well, being.

What I'm getting at is that when someone goes through amnesia they are no longer the same person people have memories attributed to the body the person going through amnesia. Bear in mind that this is under the situation that there is permanent amnesia with absolutely NO chance of the memories returning. Thus the person before the amnesia no longer exists and has, for lack of a better word, died. That life can no longer return and is instead replaced by a new persona. Therefore wouldn't the act of putting someone into that permanent state of amnesia be considered, to be in face, "murder"?.

Just a thought that came to my head mind you, but it's an interesting thought don't you agree?